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Re: PHOTO-3D digest 1355
- From: P3D Neil Harrington <nharrington@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Subject: Re: PHOTO-3D digest 1355
- Date: Thu, 30 May 1996 22:04:47 -0400
William Carter writes:
>I will agree that Wheatstone may have been the first to make drawings in
>3-D (His first appeared in 1838). But, the argument that "One could not
>have a better "proof" or demonstration of stereopsis" does not apply. I
>think the 1677 invention of a stereo microscope is a far more palpable
>demonstration of proof.
Maybe I missed something, but the original mention of this 1677 microscope
described it, I thought, as a BINOCULAR microscope. Is there any real
evidence that the inventor had stereo microscopy in mind when he designed
it? I don't pretend to have an expert knowledge of microscopes, but I
believe the modern dual-eyepiece, single-objective microscopes are not 3-D
instruments at all, but simply present the same image (via a beamsplitter,
presumably) to both eyes, the object being to allow the microscopist the
greater comfort of using both eyes rather than one. Isn't it possible that
that 17th-century designer had some similar purpose in mind? Without some
clear evidence of his intent, I wouldn't jump to the conclusion that he
understood stereopsis just because he had the idea of making a dual microscope.
Also, the earlier post mentioned this instrument being shown in an engraving
in a book. Is there any evidence that it actually existed? Obviously it's
a lot easier to make a drawing of a microscope than to manufacture a microscope.
>Further, Wheatstone knew about this stereo
>microscope, for he described it in 'Transactions of the Microscopal
>Society' (1853, I, 99-102).
Did he actually describe it AS a "stereo microscope"?
It seems to me it would be awfully hard to make a real 3-D microscope with
17th-century technology, chiefly because of the difficulty (if not
impossibility) of getting the objective lenses close enough together for
that purpose--unless we are talking about a VERY low-powered microscope.
>The reasoning behind my assertion that, by considering spheres and round
>columns, Leonardo and Euclid have proven to me they fully grasped the
>conciept of stereopsis, is that I don't consider cardboarded edge
>boundary recognition to be a cogent Z-axis construct. I don't think that
>any dual lens stereo system can render a realistic stereo picture. They
>are flawed in their ability to record a continuous form.
But of course that's a limitation shared by photographs of any other kind.
All pictures have borders of some sort. It doesn't seem very important to
me, since the perception of 3-D seems to be pretty much limited to the
central part of one's vision anyway. Am I missing something here?
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